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Published 08/13/2024 {{c2::t}}es{{c1::t}}
Published 08/13/2024 t{{c1::est}}
Published 08/13/2024 mel{{c1::zoc}}
Published 08/13/2024 wow u really checked to see if someone added a card?{{c1::yes}}
Published 08/13/2024 {{c6::T1}} weighted• Grey matter is {{c1::Dark}} • White matter is {{c2::Bright}} • CSF is {{c3::Dark}} • Bone is {{c4::Dark}} • Fatty scalp is {…
Published 08/13/2024 {{c5::T2}} weighted• Grey matter is {{c1::Bright}} • White matter is {{c2::Dark}} • CSF is {{c3::Bright}} • Bone and air remain {{c4::Dark}}
Published 08/13/2024 {{c1::T2 Flair::What}}• Grey matter is {{c2::Bright}} • White matter is {{c3::Dark}} • CSF is {{c4::Dark}} • Bone and air remain {{c5::Dark}}
Published 08/13/2024 What is this? {{c1::Bilateral MCA Infarct}}
Published 08/13/2024 3 Proposed Depression Hypotheses are the {{c1::Monoamine Hypothesis}}, {{c2::Neurotransmitter Receptor Hypothesis}}, {{c3::Neurotrophic hypothesis of …
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Mood disorders are often characterized by high prevalence rates, impact of gender, age of onset, and comorbidities. One key {{c1::etiological facto…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Family studies show that mood disorders often {{c1::run in families}}, indicating a {{c2::genetic component}}. Twin studies reveal that mood disord…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: The primary mood disorders listed in DSM-5-TR include {{c1::Major Depressive Disorder}}, {{c2::Bipolar I Disorder}}, {{c3::Bipolar II Disorder}}, a…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: For Major Depressive Disorder (MDD), one key criterion is the presence of {{c1::5 or more symptoms}} during the same {{c2::2-week period}}, includi…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: For Bipolar I Disorder, DSM-5-TR requires at least one {{c1::manic episode}}, which may be preceded or followed by {{c2::hypomanic}} or {{c3::depre…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Two specifiers for Major Depressive Disorder are with {{c1::melancholic}} features and with {{c2::atypical}} features.
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Two specifiers for Bipolar Disorders are {{c1::with rapid cycling}} and {{c2::with mixed features}}.
Published 08/13/2024 The monoamine hypothesis is {{c1::decreased}} levels of monoamines in synaptic cleft {{c2::serotonin (5-HT)}} or {{c3::norepinephrine}}
Published 08/13/2024 Q: When diagnosing Major Depressive Disorder, it is important to rule out other conditions such as {{c1::bipolar disorder}}, {{c2::substance-induced m…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: For Bipolar Disorder, one must differentiate it from {{c1::unipolar depression}} and exclude other mood disorders and {{c2::substance use}}.
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Post-partum Depression is characterized by onset of depressive symptoms within {{c1::4 weeks}} after {{c2::childbirth}}.
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder (PMDD) involves severe mood disturbances that affect {{c1::daily functioning}}, unlike less severe {{c2::PMS}}.
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Seasonal Affective Disorder involves depressive episodes occurring at specific times of the year, typically {{c1::winter}}.
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Persistent Depressive Disorder (Dysthymia) is a chronic form of depression lasting for at least {{c1::2 years}}.
Published 08/13/2024 Q: A common first-line treatment for Major Depressive Disorder includes {{c1::antidepressant medications}} and/or {{c2::psychotherapy}}.
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Typical treatment for Bipolar Disorder includes {{c1::mood stabilizers}} and {{c2::antipsychotics}}
Published 08/13/2024 Q: The mnemonic {{c1::SIGECAPS}} helps in assessing depression, where each letter stands for: {{c2::Sleep changes}}{{c3::Interest loss}}{{c4::Gui…
Published 08/13/2024 Neurotransmitter receptor hypothesis is receptors are {{c1::upregulated}} as compensatory response to {{c1::decreased}} monoamines
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Key symptoms of a manic episode include {{c1::elevated mood}}, increased {{c2::activity}}, {{c3::grandiosity}}, decreased {{c4::need for sleep}}, {…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: The mnemonic {{c1::DIG FAST}} helps remember manic episode symptoms: {{c2::Distractibility}}, {{c3::Irresponsibility}}, {{c4::Grandiosity}}, {{c5::…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: A grief reaction typically involves feelings related to {{c1::loss}} and fluctuates with periods of {{c2::positive emotion}}, whereas Major Depress…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Ketamine and Esketamine are utilized for {{c1::treatment-resistant depression}} or severe depression that has not responded to other {{c2::treatmen…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: A key benefit of Ketamine/Esketamine in depression treatment is the {{c1::rapid onset}} of antidepressant effects compared to traditional {{c2::ant…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: A PCP should refer a patient to a psychiatrist when the patient has {{c1::severe}} or {{c2::treatment-resistant symptoms}}, {{c3::complex diagnoses…
Published 08/13/2024 Neurotrophic hypothesis of gene expression is {{c1::decreased}} signal transduction mechanism at sites distal to receptors leads to {{c1::decreased}} …
Published 08/13/2024 What is this? {{c1::MCA Ischemic Stroke (Cortical branch)}}
Published 08/13/2024 What is this? {{c1::Ring Enhancing Lesion}}
Published 08/13/2024 What is this? {{c1::CT Head, non-contrast 6 hours post infarct}}
Published 08/13/2024 Q: One common myth about Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT) is that it causes {{c1::permanent memory loss}}. In reality, memory loss from ECT is usually …
Published 08/13/2024 Q: A myth about ECT is that it is a {{c1::last-resort treatment}} only. However, ECT can be used {{c2::early}} in treatment for severe depression or o…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Medical students often have mixed attitudes toward ECT, with some viewing it as {{c1::effective}} and {{c2::life-saving}}, while others may have co…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: The attitudes of medical students towards ECT can be influenced by their {{c1::training}} and exposure to {{c2::case studies}} demonstrating its be…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: When considering ECT, it's important to remember that it is a {{c1::highly effective}} treatment for severe mood disorders, and the benefits often …
Published 08/13/2024 Q: ECT should be considered when other treatments, such as {{c1::medications}} and {{c2::psychotherapy}}, have not been effective or are not appropria…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: ECT was first introduced in the {{c1::1930s}} and has evolved significantly since then. Recent trends show improved {{c2::techniques}}, reduced sid…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Modern ECT practices have focused on reducing side effects through {{c1::anesthesia advancements}}, {{c2::electrode placement improvements}}, and m…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: ECT is typically indicated for severe {{c1::major depressive disorder}}, especially when it is {{c2::treatment-resistant}} or accompanied by signif…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Other indications for ECT include severe {{c1::bipolar disorder}}, especially during {{c2::manic or depressive episodes}}, and some cases of {{c3::…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: An appropriate ECT pretreatment work-up includes a thorough {{c1::medical evaluation}}, including assessing for {{c2::cardiovascular}}, {{c3::neuro…
Published 08/13/2024 {{c1::ADC Map::Left}} vs {{c2::DWI::Right}}
Published 08/13/2024 Q: A pre-ECT evaluation also involves assessing the patient’s {{c1::medication history}}, current {{c2::psychiatric status}}, and conducting necessary…
Published 08/13/2024 {{c1::Normal CT Head}}
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Absolute contraindications for ECT include {{c1::recent myocardial infarction}} and {{c2::uncontrolled severe hypertension}}.
Published 08/13/2024 SSRIhalf life {{c1::7-9 days}} (low risk of withdrawal symptoms) {{c2::Fluoxetine}} -> {{c3::norfluoxetine}} (active, longest ½ life =180 h.)
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Relative contraindications for ECT may include {{c1::severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease}} or {{c2::pregnancy}}, where risks need to be ca…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Obtaining informed consent for ECT is essential to ensure that patients understand the {{c1::benefits}}, {{c2::risks}}, and {{c3::alternatives}} to…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Informed consent for ECT should be obtained before the first {{c1::treatment session}} and include a discussion of potential {{c2::side effects}}, …
Published 08/13/2024 Q: In ECT, anesthesia is used to induce {{c1::brief unconsciousness}} and ensure that the patient is {{c2::comfortable}} during the procedure. Common …
Published 08/13/2024 Q: The use of anesthesia in ECT helps minimize {{c1::pain}}, reduces {{c2::muscle contractions}}, and ensures a {{c3::safe and controlled}} environmen…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: In ECT, electrodes are typically placed in {{c1::biparietal}} or {{c2::unilateral}} positions, depending on the specific needs of the patient and t…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Electrode placement is designed to optimize {{c1::stimulation efficacy}} while minimizing {{c2::side effects}} and maximizing {{c3::therapeutic out…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Common complications of ECT include {{c1::temporary memory loss}}, {{c2::headaches}}, and {{c3::muscle soreness}}. Serious complications are rare b…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Mortality associated with ECT is very low, with recent studies showing a {{c1::mortality rate}} of less than {{c2::1 per 10,000}} treatments.
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Repetitive Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation (rTMS) is a non-invasive treatment that uses {{c1::magnetic fields}} to stimulate brain regions, often…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: rTMS is generally considered to have a {{c1::lower risk}} of side effects compared to ECT, and is often used for {{c2::patients who do not respond}…
Published 08/13/2024 T1 {{c1::Post Contrast}}• Grey matter is {{c2::Dark}} • White matter is {{c3::Bright}} • CSF is {{c4::Dark}} • Bone is {{c5::Dark}} • Fatty scalp…
Published 08/13/2024 SSRI has a dangerous interaction with {{c1::MAOI}} or {{c2::triptans}} because it leads to {{c3::serotonin syndrome}}
Published 08/13/2024 Summary {{c1:::)}}
Published 08/13/2024 {{c1::SSRIs}} often 1st line drug of choice
Published 08/13/2024 CT vs MRI: Which one uses ionizing?{{c1::CT}}
Published 08/13/2024 CT vs MRI: Which one uses no radiation?{{c1::MRI}}
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Abnormalities in chemical senses, such as taste and smell, can impact {{c1::nutritional intake}} and overall {{c2::health}} by affecting dietary ch…
Published 08/13/2024 Side effects of {{c1::SSRI}} are{{c2::Nausea}}{{c3::Decreased libido/sexual function}}{{c4::GI symptoms}}
Published 08/13/2024 CT vs MRI: Which one more expensive?{{c1::MRI}}
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Chemical senses play a critical role in maintaining {{c1::nutritional balance}} and overall health, as they help individuals recognize {{c2::flavor…
Published 08/13/2024 CT vs MRI: Which one is better for soft tissue?{{c1::MRI}}
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Abnormalities in taste and smell perception may indicate underlying {{c1::neurologic disorders}}, {{c2::nutritional deficiencies}}, or other {{c3::…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: For instance, a loss of smell (anosmia) can be associated with conditions like {{c1::Parkinson's disease}} or {{c2::Alzheimer's disease}}, while ta…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Taste testing is used to assess the function of taste buds and can help diagnose {{c1::neurologic disorders}} like {{c2::stroke}} or {{c3::multiple…
Published 08/13/2024 CT vs MRI: Which one is better for acute hemorrhage or trauma?{{c1::CT}}
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Taste testing also plays a role in monitoring {{c1::nutritional disorders}} by identifying deficiencies or changes in taste sensation that may requ…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Age can affect taste and smell perception, with older adults often experiencing {{c1::reduced sensitivity}} due to changes in the number of {{c2::t…
Published 08/13/2024 CT vs MRI: Which one is better for density?{{c1::CT}}
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Gender and genetics also influence taste and smell perception, with some taste sensitivities being more common in {{c1::women}} or individuals with…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Taste buds are modified {{c1::epithelial cells}} with neuron-like properties, located primarily on the {{c2::tongue}} and in the {{c3::oral cavity}…
Published 08/13/2024 CT vs MRI: Which one is better for intensity?{{c1::MRI}}
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Different types of taste buds include {{c1::fungiform}}, {{c2::circumvallate}}, and {{c3::foliate}}. Each type has a unique structure and role in t…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Sweet, salty, sour, and bitter substances depolarize taste receptors through {{c1::molecular mechanisms}} involving specific {{c2::ion channels}} a…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Taste information is coded by the pattern of {{c1::neural activity}} across a population of taste receptors, allowing for the perception of differe…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Cranial nerves involved in taste include {{c1::CN 7 (facial)}}, {{c2::CN 9 (glossopharyngeal)}}, and {{c3::CN 10 (vagus)}}, which project to the {{…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: The nucleus of the solitary tract sends projections to the {{c1::medial part of the ventral posteromedial nucleus (VPM)}} of the {{c2::thalamus}}, …
Published 08/13/2024 Q: The gustatory cortex is located in the {{c1::insula}} and the {{c2::medial surface}} of the frontal operculum, and it projects to the {{c3::orbital…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: CN 5 provides innervation to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue and soft palate, carrying general somatic information, including {{c1::pain}}, to the {…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Olfactory receptor cells are {{c1::neuronal}} and regenerate throughout adult life, unlike taste buds. This high turnover rate is unique among {{c2…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Each olfactory receptor cell expresses a single class of {{c1::G-protein coupled receptors}}, which respond to specific {{c2::odorant molecules}}.
Published 08/13/2024 What is the main type of edema seen in acute stroke?{{c1::Cytotoxic}}
Published 08/13/2024 Q: There are thousands of different olfactory receptor cells, each binding to a unique array of {{c1::odorants}}, allowing for a diverse range of olfa…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: The chemical and physical properties that substances must have to be detected by the olfactory system include {{c1::volatility}}, {{c2::solubility}…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Olfactory receptor cells project through the {{c1::cribriform plate}} via the {{c2::olfactory nerve}} to innervate mitral cells in the {{c3::olfact…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: The olfactory bulb projects directly to the {{c1::olfactory cortex}}, which sends information to the {{c2::olfactory association cortex}}, either d…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Deficits in olfaction can be classified as {{c1::conductive}} or {{c2::sensorineural}}. Conductive deficits are due to obstructions in the nasal pa…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Pheromonal communication, studied extensively in {{c1::insects}} and lower mammals, has not been convincingly shown to exist in {{c2::primates}}.
Published 08/13/2024 Q: The vomeronasal organ, where pheromonal receptors are located, is absent in most {{c1::primates}} after {{c2::gestation}}, and if present, is thoug…
Published 08/13/2024 Which type of cerebral edema is commonly seen in tumors and demyelinating plaques?{{c1::Vasogenic}}
Published 08/13/2024 Q: The presence of a vomeronasal-like structure in some adult primates is still a {{c1::debated}} scientific issue, with evidence for its functionalit…
Published 08/13/2024 {{c1::Venlafaxin}} (SNRI) is a potent {{c2::5-HT}} reuptake blockade, acts like {{c3::SSRI}} at low doses, and has {{c4::withdrawal symptoms}} (↓[R]),…
Published 08/13/2024 Which type of cerebral edema is seen in hydrocephalus?{{c1::Transependymal}}
Published 08/13/2024 {{c1::Milnacipran}} (SNRI) is approved only for {{c2::fibromyalgia}}, not MDD
Published 08/13/2024 {{c1::Cytotoxic}} – failure of the Na/K ATPase leads to intracellular swelling. 
Published 08/13/2024 {{c1::Vasogenic}} – breakdown of the blood/brain barrier leads to extracellular swelling
Published 08/13/2024 {{c1::Transependymal}} – increased CSF pressures cause signal change in the periventricular regions
Published 08/13/2024 SNRI- Active metabolites{{c1::Venlafaxine}} -> {{c2::desvenlafaxine}}Both have {{c3::lowest}} protein binding
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Published 08/13/2024 Q: A personality is a complex pattern of {{c1::thoughts}}, {{c2::feelings}}, and {{c3::behaviors}} that defines an individual. It differs from a perso…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: A personality disorder is defined as a pattern of behavior, cognition, and inner experience that deviates markedly from the expectations of the {{c…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Ego dystonic refers to thoughts, feelings, or behaviors that are experienced as {{c1::inconsistent}} with one's self-concept, causing distress. Ego…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: A personality trait is a characteristic pattern of thinking, feeling, or behaving that is {{c1::consistent}} and relatively stable. In contrast, a …
Published 08/13/2024 Tricyclics- Significant {{c5::first pass}} metabolism- Active metabolites{{c1::Imipramine}} -> {{c2::desipramine}}{{c3::Amitriptyline}} -> {{c4:…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: The “three clusters” of personality disorders are: Cluster A: {{c1::Odd or eccentric}} (e.g., Paranoid, Schizoid, Schizotypal) Cluster B: {{c2::Dr…
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Published 08/13/2024 Q: To diagnose a personality disorder, one must assess for pervasive, enduring patterns of behavior that cause significant {{c1::distress}} or {{…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Individuals with personality disorders may use defense mechanisms such as {{c1::splitting}}, {{c2::projection}}, and {{c3::denial}} to manage their…
Published 08/13/2024 Tricyclics are called "{{c1::dirty drugs}}" because they produce more {{c2::side effects}}
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Important psychological terms related to personality disorders include {{c1::ego dystonic}}, {{c2::ego syntonic}}, {{c3::persistence}}, and {{c4::m…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: When dealing with individuals with personality disorders, it's important to be aware of their potential for {{c1::emotional instability}}, difficul…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: General traits of individuals with personality disorders may include {{c1::emotional instability}}, {{c2::impulsivity}}, and {{c3::rigidity}}. Defe…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: To deal effectively with each type of personality disorder, one should tailor interventions to address specific traits and behaviors, such as using…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: A personality change caused by another medical condition refers to alterations in personality that result from a {{c1::medical}} or {{c2::neurologi…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Medical conditions that might cause changes in personality include {{c1::dementia}}, {{c2::stroke}}, {{c3::brain injury}}, and {{c4::neuroendocrine…
Published 08/13/2024 Overdose on {{c1::tricyclics}} is extremely dangerous (note suicide risk!)
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Transference occurs when a patient projects feelings about significant others onto the {{c1::therapist}}. Counter-transference is when the therapis…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Positive transference involves the patient projecting {{c1::positive feelings}} or expectations onto the therapist, often idealizing them. Negative…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Positive transference can lead to unrealistic {{c1::expectations}} or dependency on the therapist, while negative transference can cause the patien…
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Published 08/13/2024 Q: Freud’s structural theory includes: The Id, which operates on the {{c1::pleasure principle}}, seeking immediate {{c2::gratification}}. The Ego, wh…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Anxiety often triggers the use of defense mechanisms to protect the individual from {{c1::emotional distress}} or {{c2::unacceptable impulses}}. Th…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Defense mechanisms are classified into different levels based on their {{c1::adaptiveness}}: Mature mechanisms, such as {{c2::sublimation}} and {{…
Published 08/13/2024 {{c1::Amytriptyline}}, {{c3::clomipramine}}, {{c2::doxepin}}, {{c3::imipramine}} have a {{c4::high}} sedation additive with other sedative drugs
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Denial involves refusing to acknowledge the existence of {{c1::external realities}} or unpleasant facts.
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Projection involves attributing one’s own unacceptable feelings or thoughts to {{c1::others}}.
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Conversion involves expressing psychological distress through {{c1::physical symptoms}}.
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Splitting involves viewing people or situations as either {{c1::all good}} or {{c2::all bad}}, with no middle ground.
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Fixation involves remaining at a certain level of {{c1::development}} due to unresolved conflicts.
Published 08/13/2024 Antimuscarinic drugs cause {{c1::blurred vision}}, {{c2::constipation}}, {{c3::confusion}}
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Acting out involves expressing emotions or impulses through {{c1::behavioral actions}} rather than through conscious awareness.
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Repression involves unconsciously blocking out {{c1::distressing memories}} or thoughts.
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Reaction Formation involves expressing the opposite of one’s true {{c1::feelings}} to avoid uncomfortable emotions.
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Rationalization involves providing logical or reasonable explanations for behaviors or actions that are actually motivated by {{c1::emotional facto…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Intellectualization involves focusing on the {{c1::details}} of a situation to avoid dealing with the emotional impact.
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Isolation of Affect involves separating emotions from {{c1::thoughts}} or experiences, allowing for intellectual processing without emotional invol…
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Regression involves reverting to behaviors typical of an earlier stage of {{c1::development}} when faced with stress.
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Displacement involves redirecting emotions from a threatening or unavailable object to a {{c1::less threatening}} one.
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Undoing involves attempting to reverse or negate a thought or action by performing {{c1::opposite}} actions or behaviors.
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Altruism involves performing selfless acts for others as a way to manage one’s own {{c1::emotional needs}}.
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Humor involves finding the {{c1::amusing}} aspects of a distressing situation to manage anxiety.
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Sublimation involves channeling unacceptable impulses into {{c1::socially acceptable}} activities or behaviors.
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Suppression involves consciously deciding to put aside distressing thoughts or feelings for later {{c1::consideration}}.
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Introjection involves internalizing the beliefs or values of others, often to reduce feelings of {{c1::anxiety}} or gain acceptance.
Published 08/13/2024 Q: Identification involves adopting the traits or behaviors of another person, often to gain a sense of {{c1::belonging}} or self-worth.
Published 08/13/2024 {{c1::Trazodone}} is a {{c2::5-HT2 antagonists}} useful as a {{c3::hypnotic }}, has a {{c4::short}} 1/2 life (2-6 hrs) and an {{c5::unpredictable…
Published 08/13/2024 {{c1::Amoxapine}} (tetracyclics)Active metabolites ({{c2::7-hydroxyamoxapine}}) potent {{c3::D2}} blocker (antipsychotic)Some {{c4::DA}} receptor anta…
Published 08/13/2024 {{c1::Cytotoxic Edema}}•Grey/white differentiation {{c2::preserved}}.
Published 08/13/2024 {{c1::Vasogenic Edema}}
Published 08/13/2024 {{c1::Maprotiline}} is a dose-{{c2::dependent}} seizures
Published 08/13/2024 {{c1::Vasogenic Edema}}•Visible as {{c2::hyperintensity}} on {{c3::T2 MRI}}.
Published 08/13/2024 {{c1::Mirtazapine}} blocks {{c2::a2}} adrenoceptor on presynaptic terminal, so {{c3::NE}} cannot inhibit further {{c4::NE}} release through autoinhibi…
Published 08/13/2024 {{c1::Transependymal Edema}}
Published 08/13/2024 {{c1::Mirtazapine}} is an {{c2::antihistaminic}}, which causes {{c3::sedation}} and {{c4::weight gain}}
Published 08/13/2024 {{c1::CT}} is the preferred modality when acute hemorrhage is suspected.
Published 08/13/2024 Carotid Doppler Ultrasound: {{c1::Bernoulli's}} principle
Published 08/13/2024 {{c1::Bupropion}} (unicyclics) has {{c2::3}} active metabolites
Published 08/13/2024 CT scan can utilize IV {{c1::iodine}} contrast to highlight the vasculature and certain pathologies.
Published 08/13/2024 A second magnetic field is generated which causes the spinning hydrogen nuclei to move and relax back to the original alignment, they emit a radiofreq…
Published 08/13/2024 The signal emitted is determined by the tissue’s {{c1::susceptibility}}.
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